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Bài tập tiếng Anh lớp 12

Bài tập tiếng Anh lớp 12

Bài tập tiếng Anh lớp 12

 

FFED BACK EXERCISE VI=A

 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions    

 

The following passage is an excerpt from a recent introduction to the momentous1964 Report on Smoking and Health issued by the United

States Surgeon General. It discusses the inspiration behind the report and the report’s effect on public attitudes toward smoking.

                    (1) No single issue has preoccupied the Surgeons General of the past four decades more than smoking. The reports of the Surgeon General have alerted the nation to the health risk of smoking, and have transformed the issue from one of individual and consumer choice, to one of (5) epidemiology, public health, and risk for smokers and non-smokers alike.

         Debate over the hazards and benefits of smoking has divided physicians,  scientists,  governments,  smokers,  and  non-smokers  since

Tobacco nicotiana was first imported to Europe from its native soil in the Americas in the sixteenth century. A dramatic increase in cigarette (10) smoking in the United States in the twentieth century called forth anti-smoking movements. Reformers, hygienists, and public health officials argued that smoking brought about general malaise, physiological malfunction, and a decline in mental and physical efficiency.

Evidence of the ill effects of smoking accumulated during the 1930s, (15) 1940s, and 1950s.

              Epidemiologists used statistics  and  large-scale,  long-term,  case-control surveys to link the increase in lung cancer mortality to smoking.  Pathologists and laboratory scientists confirmed the statistical relationship of smoking to lung cancer as well as to other serious dis-

eases,  (20) such  as  bronchitis,  emphysema,  and  coronary  heart  disease. Smoking, these studies suggested, and not air pollution, asbestos contamination, or radioactive materials, was the chief cause of the epidemic rise of lung cancer in the twentieth century. On June 12, 1957,

Surgeon General Leroy E. Burney declared it the official position of (25)the U.S. Public Health Service that the evidence pointed to a causal

relationship between smoking and lung cancer.

              The impulse for an official report on smoking and health, however, came from an alliance of prominent private health organizations. In June 1961, the American Cancer Society, the American Heart (30) Association, the National Tuberculosis Association, and the American Public Health Association addressed a letter to President John F. Kennedy, in which they called for a national commission on smoking, dedicated to “seeking a solution to this health problem that would interfere least with the freedom of industry or the happiness of individuals.” The (35) Kennedy administration responded the following year, after prompting from a widely circulated critical study on cigarette smoking by the Royal College of Physicians of London. On June 7, 1962, recently appointed Surgeon General Luther L. Terry announced that he would

convene a committee of experts to conduct a comprehensive review of (40) the scientific literature on the smoking question. . . .

           Meeting at the National Library of Medicine on the campus of the National Institutes of Health in Bethesda, Maryland, from November

1962 through January 1964, the committee reviewed more than 7,000 scientific articles with the help of over 150 consultants. Terry issued (45) the commission’s report on January 11, 1964, choosing a Saturday to minimize the effect on the stock market and to maximize coverage in the Sunday papers. As Terry remembered the event, two decades later, the report “hit the country like a bombshell. It was front page news

and a lead story on every radio and television station in the United (50) States and many abroad.”

            The report  highlighted  the  deleterious  health  consequences  of tobacco use. Smoking and Health: Report of the Advisory Committee to the Surgeon General held cigarette smoking responsible for a 70% increase in the mortality rate of smokers over non-smokers. The report (55) estimated that average smokers had a nine- to ten-fold risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers: heavy smokers had at least a twenty-fold  risk.  The  risk  rose  with  the  duration  of  smoking  and diminished  with  the  cessation  of  smoking. (60)  The  report  also  named smoking  as  the  most  important  cause  of  chronic  bronchitis  and pointed to a correlation between smoking and emphysema, and smoking and coronary heart disease. It noted that smoking during preg nancy  reduced  the  average  weight  of  newborns.  On  one  issue  the committee hedged: nicotine addiction. It insisted that the “tobacco habit should be characterized as an habituation rather than an (65) addiction,” in part because the addictive properties of nicotine were not yet fully understood, in part because of differences over the meaning of

addiction.

            The 1964 report on smoking and health had an impact on public attitudes and policy. A Gallup Survey conducted in 1958 found that

(70) only 44% of Americans believed smoking caused cancer, while 78% believed so by 1968. In the course of a decade, it had become common knowledge that smoking damaged health, and mounting evidence of health risks gave Terry’s 1964 report public resonance. Yet, while the report proclaimed that “cigarette smoking is a health hazard of (75) sufficient importance in the United States to warrant appropriate remedial action,” it remained silent on concrete remedies. That challenge fell to politicians. In 1965, Congress required all cigarette packages distributed in the United States to carry a health warning, and since 1970 this warning is made in the name of the Surgeon General. In 1969,

(80) cigarette advertising on television and radio was banned, effective September 1970.

66. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. show the mounting evidence of the deleterious health consequences of smoking.

b. explain why the Kennedy administration called for a national commission on smoking.

c. describe the government’s role in protecting public health.   d. show the significance of the 1964 Surgeon General’s report.

67. In line 1, preoccupied most nearly means

a. distressed.        b. beset.          c. absorbed.     d. inconvenienced.

68. The first sentence of the second paragraph (lines 6–9) is intended to express the

a. long-standing controversy about the effects of smoking.

b. current consensus of the medical community regarding smoking.

c. government’s interest in improving public health.  d. ongoing colloquy between physicians, scientists, and governments.

69. The author implies that the impulse (line 27) to create a government report on smoking

a. was an overdue response to public demand.   b. would not have been pursued if John F. Kennedy was not president.

c. came from within the U.S. Public Health Service.  d. was the result of pressure from forces outside of the government.

70. The quotation by Surgeon General Luther L. Terry (lines 48–50) is used to illustrate the

a. outrage of consumers wanting to protect their right to smoke.   b. disproportionate media coverage of the smoking report.

c. overreaction of a hysterical public.  d. explosive response to the revelation of smoking’s damaging effects.

71. In line 63,  hedged most nearly means

a. exaggerated.    b. evaded.      c. deceived.     d. hindered.

72. The statement that the 1964 Surgeon General’s report remained silent on concrete remedies(line 76) implies that it

a. served primarily as a manifesto that declared the views of the Surgeon General.

b. could have recommended banning cigarette advertising but it did not.

c. was ignorant of possible remedial actions.   d. maintained its objectivity by abstaining from making policy  recommendations.

73. In the last paragraph of the passage, the attitude of the author toward the legacy of the 1964 Surgeon General’s report is one of

a. unqualified praise.          b. appreciation.            c. wonderment.       d. cynicism.

Choose the best answer:

74. A. I think that genetically modified foods can feed the world and promote health and ecological value

B. I hear you!

A. I understand what you’re saying          B. I don’t agree with what you are saying!    

C. you speak loudly enough for me to hear    D. you can repeat it again

75   That guy always talks and shouts to himself.  He's not playing with a full deck! 
A.  not serious      B. playing fun                          C. crazy               B. insensible

76.  Bob knows what the president is going to announce in his televised speech this evening because he has the inside track!
A.  kept in touch with the president        B. kept the president’s trace    C. has learnt everything about him    D. information about him
77.  Despite some members of the Board of Education admitting to the ______ of his argument, Proposition G6 was still denied by a vote of 4 to A.   Brusqueness    B.  truculence    C.   negligence   D. cogency

78. Mr. Plainview is a man of secrecy. He deals with the mob and other ______ organizations, and regularly participates in their ______ activities.

A.   clandestine...unlawful  B.   anarchistic...fraudulent C.   amiable...illegitimate  D.   disdainful...scrupulous

79.   Even the most ______ gambler stops betting when he or she runs out of money.

 A.  intelligent   B.  cautious   C.   hazardous   D.   foolhardy

80  The ______ icicles hardly cast a shadow.

  A. diaphanous    B.  auspicious         C.   malleable         D.   opaque

 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

 

Question 1: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam.

Question 2: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.

Question 3: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the ground to the top of it antenna.

Question 4: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly  among the friendly to human

Question 5: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what he won a Newberry Caldecot award.

Question 6:   All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, andthe technological institutions if they are to preserve                environment.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the bestmeaning formed by the given words

 

Question 7:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote

A.  It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting.              B.   There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted.

C.   There’s no doubt Alison will promote.              D.  It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted.

Question 8 when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend?

A.   When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend?

B.   When will you make up your mind which university to attend?

C.   When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend?

D.   When are you making up your mind about university to attend?

Question 9: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do

A.   Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.

B.   Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do.

C.   Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do.

D.   Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do.

Question 10: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place

A.   Your organization made it possible to take place this conference.

B.   Your organization made possible for this conference to take place.

C.   Your organization made it possible this conference to take place.

D.   Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.

Question 11: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school

A.   I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.

B.   I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school.

C.   I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school.

D.   I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school.

 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

 

12. I see no reason to change my clothes so long as they are not excessively dirty.

                A. If my clothes were a bit dirty, then probably I would think about changing them.

                B. Provided my clothes are not too dirty, I do not think did necessary to change them.

                C. I will have to change my clothes if they get any less clean than they currently are.

                D. It is illogical to change my clothes when they are not actually dirty.

13. A psychiatrist can only help him if he tried to help himself.

                A. A good psychiatrist will be able to show him how to help himself.

                B. As long as he is able to help himself, there is no need for him to see a psychiatrist.

                C. Unless he makes some effort towards helping himself, a psychiatrist will be of no use to him.

                D. Since he is unable to help himself, he had better see a psychiatrist.

14. He said he would be here at 6 o’clock, but he hasn’t showed up yet.

                A. In spite of promising to come here at 6 o’clock, he has not yet arrived.

                B. It is 6 o’clock, so he should show up any minute.

                C. If he comes at the time he said he will be here by 6.

                D. Since he arranged to be here by 6 o’clock, he undoubtedly will be.

15. Rather than buying him a sweater, why don’t we make one ourselves?

                A. I would rather buy a sweater for him than make one ourselves.

                B. Let’s make him a sweater ourselves instead of buying him one.

                C. Would you rather buy him a sweater or make one yourself?

                D. Do you think we can manage to make him a sweater, or should we buy him one?

16. You will never have another opportunity like this.

A. You’ll find that opportunity like there are few and far between.  B. There has never been an opportunity like this.

C. You should have taken the chance when you had it.   D. This is the best chance you will ever get.

 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions    

       The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present] Line    urban structure. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed (5)      to mature urbanism’s in little more than a century.

               In the early colonial day in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which (10)    most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and, as the colonies grew, these cities  (15)    increased in importance.

          This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along  the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations (20)    maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In face, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.

          When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single (25)    city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 10,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning had weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).

17. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe. (B) The evolution of cities in North America

(C) Trade between North American and European cities

(D)The effects of the United Sates’ independence on urban growth in New England.

18. The word “they” in line 4 refers to

(A) North American colonies             (B) cities  (C) centuries                       (D) town economies

19. The passage compares early European and North American cities on the basis of which of the following?

(A) Their economic success        (B) The type of merchandise they exported

(C) Their ability to distribute goods to interior settlements   (D)The pace of their development

20. The Word “accordingly” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) as usual           (B) in contrast       (C) to some degree               (D) for that reason

21. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to

(A) an abundance of natural resources            (B) financial support from colonial governments

(C) proximity to parts of Europe        (D) a favorable climate

22. The passage indicates that during colonial times, the Atlantic coastline cities prepared which of the following for shipment to Europe?

(A) Manufacturing equipment          (B) Capital goods  (C) Consumer goods                           (D) Raw materials

23. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the growth of southern cities EXCEPT the

(A) location of the plantations    (B) access of plantation owners to shipping

(C) relationships between plantation residents and city residents  (D) economic self-sufficiency of the plantation

24. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern, cities, most southern cities were

(A) imagined         (B) discovered       (C) documented    (D) planned

25. The word “recorded” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) imagined         (B) discovered       (C) documented    (D) planned

26. The word “drawing” in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) attracting        (B) employing       (C) instructing      (D) representing

27. The passage mentions the period following the Civil War (line28-29) because it was a time of

(A) significant obstacles to industrial growth  (B) decreased dependence on foreign trade

(C) increased numbers of people leaving employment on farms (D) increased migration from northern states to southern states

Mark  the  letter A,  B,  C  or  D  on  your  answer  sheet  to  indicate  the  word  whose  underlined  part  is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones

   Question 28:      A. merchant          B. sergeant            C. commercial      D. term

Question 29:         A. colonel              B. journal               C. touring               D. adjourn

Question 30:         A. obstacle            B. obscure             C. obsession          D. oblivious

Question 31:          A. amuses              B. purses                C. blouses              D. pleases

Question 32:          A. Valentine          B. imagine              C. discipline           D. determine

Mark the letter A,B.C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:

33. A. moisture           B. choir        C. boisterous                  D. coinage.

34. A fey                     B. sprays        C. days                          D. says.

35. A. bond                   B. hold         C. bone                         D. bony

36. A. toughen           B. brighten        C. mighty                   D. thorough

37. A. comprehensible                    B. collision            C. illusory                        D. conclusive

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completeseach unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one

 

Question 38: It is very difficult to…………the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.

A. convert B. convey  C. exchange             D. transfer

 

B. would finish what I did

D. finished what I was doing

 

Question 39 I have English classes …………day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
B. When hydroelectric power

D. Should hydroelectric powe

 

Question 40: There is a huge amount of ………associated with children’s TV shows nowadays.

A. produce               B. manufacturing      C. merchandising     D. sales

Question 41: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to………….what she missed while she was away.

A. catch up on          B. cut down on         C. put up with          D. take up with

Question 42: All………….is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.

A. what is needed     B. for our needs        C. the thing needed  D. that is needed

 

B. The mounted police I saw whom

D. The mounted police whom I saw

 

Question  43:  “  Please  speak  up  a  bit  more,  Jason.  You’re  hardly  loud enough to be heard  from  theback”, the teacher said.

A. visible  B. audible C. edible  D. eligible

Question  44:  I don’t suppose there is anyone there, ______?

A. is there             B. isn't there         C. do I    D. don't I

Question  45:           Ancient    Egyptians  mummified              their         dead         through    the           use           of             chemicals,

………….ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.

A. because                B. whereas               C. even though         D. whether or not

 

B. After discussing with my wife

D. For the second time

 

Question 46. It’s a formal occaion so we’ll have to…….to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!

A. hitch up               B. put on  C. wear in                D. get dressed up

Question 47: Please cut my hair …………….the style in this magazine.

A. the same length as                B. the same length like             C. the same long like                D. the same long as

Question 48: So little………….about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond m

 

A. I have known       B. I knew C. do I know            D. did I know

Question 49: …………so aggressive, we’d get on much better.

A. She was not          B. Had she not          C. Weren’t she         D. If she weren’t

Question  50:  Issues  from  price,  place,  promotion,  and  product  are………….of  marketing  strategies

planning, despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.

A.   these that are among the most conventional concerns  B.   among the most conventional concerns

C.   they are among the most conventional concerns  D.   those are among the most conventional concerns

 

    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks

      

             Scientists can choose which genes to (51)_____, but they don't yet know where in the DNA to precisely insert these genes and they have no way of (52)______ gene expression. Genes (53)_____ in isolation, changing a few could change the whole picture, with (54)_____ and different effects under different circumstances.  It is not correct to tout genetically modified food without evaluating the risks sufficiently or at least proving conclusively that there are no risks.

               Many GM companies don't label their foods as being GM foods. There is   (55)______ about a GM bias affecting business. But not labeling is wrong and unfair to the consumers who should have the right to know what they are buying and (56)----- to decide whether they want to buy GM food or not. Even if health (57)____ factors are not an issue, some people might have moral or religious (58)___. They should not have to eat GM food if they don't want to.

GM food will end food diversity if everyone starts growing the same (59)______- crops. Herbicide-resistant and pesticide-resistant crops could (60)_____ rise to super-weeds and super-pests that would need newer, stronger chemicals to destroy them.

             GM crops could cross-pollinate with nearby non-GM plants and create ecological problems. If this (61)____were to happen with GM foods containing vaccines, antibiotics, contraceptives and so on, it would very well turn into a human health nightmare.

             The claim of ending world hunger with GM food is a /an (62)______ claim. World hunger is not caused by shortage of food (63)____, but by sheer mismanagement, and lack of access to food brought about by various social, financial and political causes.

              The GM technology companies patent their crops and also (64)_____ crops so that harvested grain germs are incapable of developing. This is not (65)______ to impoverished Third World farmers, who cannot save seeds for replanting and have to buy expensive seeds from the companies every time. The new technology also interferes with their traditional agricultural ways which may be more suited to their conditions.  Instead of going for GM food, why not focus more on improving organic agricultural practices? angers in such genetic modification.

51. A. deal                 B. manipulate                       C. utilize                D. modify.

52. A. restricting                B. restraining                C. controlling                 D. supervising

53. A. work                      B. rarely work                  C. don’t work                     D. do work.

54. A. unpredictable                      B. inpredictable         C. predictable             D. unpredicted.

55. A. worry                       B. doubt                     C. concern                         D. problem.

56. A. virtually                   B. actually                   C. exactly                         D. indeed.

57. A. safe                           B. security                      C. safety                     D. safely

58. A. objections                B. protections                C. protests                  D. protestions.

59. A. standarding            B. standardized                  C. accepted                      D. generalized.

60. A. make                       B. create                          C. give                         D. have.

61. A. is                             B. was                              C. will                          D. were.

62. A. wrong                      B. fake                           C. untrue                    D. false

63. A. manufactures              B. production                  C. products             D. sources.

64. A. engineer                    B. produce                  C. make                         D. perform.

65. A. allowing                   B. empowering                 C. encouraging            D. permitting.

 


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